The difference being that person then has to go through trial, and innocence is presumed.
The current legal standard at the federal level is that there is no requirement for a trial, and the person must prove their innocence.
The entire concept and the justification from that random 1826(?) SCOTUS case is absurd and smack in the face of the 4th Amendment. The idea that the property has no rights because it's a civil suit against the property, not a person, yet property belongs to and was seized from a person, property which is protected under the 4th Amendment...